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posted by Nylorac on November 5th, 2007 at 3:09PM

Well, I meant to suggest an unwillingness to grant a causal relationship between 2 factors just because some stats "showed" there to be some correlation, or no correlation.   I don't think stats are that objective.   I'd need to know more about the selection process in place before judging the epistemic value of some putative "evidence".
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